...since the shooter was reportedly let out on probation relative to a stabbing he was alleged to have committed recently. Had he remained incarcerated, the shooting would not have taken place.
The guy had been reported as shooting firearms early in the morning and late at night. Regardless of whether that was reported before or after the stabbing - the authorities should have searched this guys home and maybe elsewhere for firearms and removed them from his possession once he had been charged with what likely was a felony. That is if it is true that is neighbors had contacted police repeatedly to report him for late night and early morning shooting. (Source for that info.)
Think of it, if his late night and early morning shooting was reported before the alleged stabbing - then why did the police not put one and one together and take his guns from him once he was charged? If his late PM and early AM shooting was after the alleged stabbing then why did the police not seize the guns, once him having then was reported, since someone so charged cannot legally possess firearms? Of course, it all begs the question: Why would a judge ever let him out on bail without ordering his firearms be surrendered to police since if it was well known had firearms?
Now, what I am saying all depends on the veracity of the reports about him coming in at this early stage - that could all change - but if what is being reported now turns out to all be true - then maybe someone in law enforcement and someone in the criminal justice system needs to be held partially responsible. This is not meant to be any sort of anti-police rant so don't take it that way. It is an anti-incompetence rant relative to a rabidly anti-RKBA state like CA that seemingly bends over backwards to give prisoners as many rights as possible while denying rights of it law abiding citizens.
Of course, as usual, my prayers are going out to the loved ones of the deceased and to the surviving victims with hopes for full recoveries for all of them.
All the best
Glenn B
The guy had been reported as shooting firearms early in the morning and late at night. Regardless of whether that was reported before or after the stabbing - the authorities should have searched this guys home and maybe elsewhere for firearms and removed them from his possession once he had been charged with what likely was a felony. That is if it is true that is neighbors had contacted police repeatedly to report him for late night and early morning shooting. (Source for that info.)
Think of it, if his late night and early morning shooting was reported before the alleged stabbing - then why did the police not put one and one together and take his guns from him once he was charged? If his late PM and early AM shooting was after the alleged stabbing then why did the police not seize the guns, once him having then was reported, since someone so charged cannot legally possess firearms? Of course, it all begs the question: Why would a judge ever let him out on bail without ordering his firearms be surrendered to police since if it was well known had firearms?
Now, what I am saying all depends on the veracity of the reports about him coming in at this early stage - that could all change - but if what is being reported now turns out to all be true - then maybe someone in law enforcement and someone in the criminal justice system needs to be held partially responsible. This is not meant to be any sort of anti-police rant so don't take it that way. It is an anti-incompetence rant relative to a rabidly anti-RKBA state like CA that seemingly bends over backwards to give prisoners as many rights as possible while denying rights of it law abiding citizens.
Of course, as usual, my prayers are going out to the loved ones of the deceased and to the surviving victims with hopes for full recoveries for all of them.
All the best
Glenn B
1 comment:
don't know about cali, but in va. you have to be convicted of a felony or a brady act before you lose your guns and even then they have to let you dispose of them in a timely manner.
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